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Divine Command Theory
Jan 1 2012, 6:41 am
By: rayNimagi
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Aug 5 2012, 9:34 pm Jack Post #101

>be faceless void >mfw I have no face

Quote from Oh_Man
OK, well I'm beginning to understand now. For clarification:
"Moral laws are absolute."
"Every other type of law ceremonial/whatever is transient."
"God has or never will make another type of law that would contradict a moral law."

Am I on the same page?
Yes, as far as I can see.



Red classic.

"In short, their absurdities are so extreme that it is painful even to quote them."

Aug 7 2012, 7:28 am Oh_Man Post #102

Find Me On Discord (Brood War UMS Community & Staredit Network)

OK, now, I need to know, how do these NOT contradict the moral law?


Quote
"Thou shalt not kill/murder." Exodus 20:13

"If a man lies with a male as with a women, both of them shall be put to death for their abominable deed; they have forfeited their lives." (Leviticus 20:13 NAB)
"A man or a woman who acts as a medium or fortuneteller shall be put to death by stoning; they have no one but themselves to blame for their death." (Leviticus 20:27 NAB)
"Whoever strikes his father or mother shall be put to death." (Exodus 21:15 NAB)
"If a man commits adultery with another man's wife, both the man and the woman must be put to death." (Leviticus 20:10 NLT)
Etc.

I think one of these will have to be discarded.
Quote
"Moral laws are absolute."
"God has or never will make another type of law that would contradict a moral law."





Aug 7 2012, 12:40 pm Jack Post #103

>be faceless void >mfw I have no face

"Thou shalt not kill" refers to murder, not civil death penalties.



Red classic.

"In short, their absurdities are so extreme that it is painful even to quote them."

Aug 7 2012, 8:16 pm Oh_Man Post #104

Find Me On Discord (Brood War UMS Community & Staredit Network)

OK. Well can you perhaps define the difference between the two? I'm not sure I understand.

I'll ask some questions pertaining to a single example:
So, for instance, God decreed that it was a civil law, civil commandment, whatever, to stone adulterers; but this civil commandment was eventually repudiated by... Jesus?
But now if we kill someone for adultery, it is a violation of the moral law because the civil law was repudiated?

Post has been edited 1 time(s), last time on Aug 7 2012, 8:21 pm by CecilSunkure. Reason: Nobody needs to see annoying caps words.




Aug 7 2012, 8:23 pm CecilSunkure Post #105



Quote from Oh_Man
OK. Well can you perhaps define the difference between the two? I'm not sure I understand.

I'll ask some questions pertaining to a single example:
So, for instance, God decreed that it was a civil law, civil commandment, whatever, to stone adulterers; but this civil commandment was eventually repudiated by... Jesus?
But now if we kill someone for adultery, it is a violation of the moral law because the civil law was repudiated?
If you have a series of steps or questions to ask that lead up to a single point or proposed contradiction, please articulate the idea in a single post. It's unnecessary for you and Jack to back and forth with short posts, when your entire argument can be explained within a single post. Modifications to your argument/claim can then be discussed or made after the entire idea you want to point out has been brought to thread.



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